Pennsylvania Department of Education Bureau of Curriculum, Assessment and Instruction—September 2018
Pennsylvania
Keystone Exams
Biology
Item and Scoring Sampler
2018
Pennsylvania Keystone Biology Item and Scoring Sampler—September 2018
ii
TABLE OF CONTENTS
INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
Introduction .......................................................................................1
About the Keystone Exams .........................................................................1
Alignment ....................................................................................1
Depth of Knowledge ..........................................................................2
Exam Format ..................................................................................2
Item and Scoring Sampler Format ..................................................................3
Biology Exam Directions ...........................................................................4
General Description of Scoring Guidelines for Biology ..............................................5
BIOLOGY MODULE 1
Multiple-Choice Questions .........................................................................6
Constructed-Response Item .......................................................................22
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline ...............................................................24
Constructed-Response Item .......................................................................34
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline ...............................................................36
Biology Module 1—Summary Data ................................................................46
BIOLOGY MODULE 2
Multiple-Choice Questions ........................................................................48
Constructed-Response Item .......................................................................66
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline ...............................................................68
Constructed-Response Item .......................................................................80
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline ...............................................................82
Pennsylvania Keystone Biology Item and Scoring Sampler—September 2018
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INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
INTRODUCTION
The Pennsylvania Department of Education (PDE) provides districts and schools with tools to assist in
delivering focused instructional programs aligned to the Pennsylvania Core Standards. These tools include
the standards, Assessment Anchor documents, Keystone Exams Test Definition, Classroom Diagnostic
Tool, Standards Aligned System, and content-based item and scoring samplers. This 2018 Biology Item and
Scoring Sampler is a useful tool for Pennsylvania educators in preparing students for the Keystone Exams.
This Item and Scoring Sampler contains released operational multiple-choice and constructed-response
items that have appeared on previously administered Keystone Exams. These items will not appear on
any future Keystone Exams. Released items provide an idea of the types of items that have appeared on
operational exams and that will appear on future operational Keystone Exams. Each item has been through a
rigorous review process to ensure alignment with the Assessment Anchors and Eligible Content. This sampler
includes items that measure a variety of Assessment Anchor or Eligible Content statements, but it does not
include sample items for all Assessment Anchor or Eligible Content statements.
The items in this sampler may be used as examples for creating assessment items at the classroom level and
may be copied and used as part of a local instructional program.
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Classroom teachers may find it beneficial
to have students respond to the constructed-response items in this sampler. Educators can then use the
sampler as a guide to score the responses either independently or together with colleagues.
This Item and Scoring Sampler is available in Braille format. For more information regarding Braille,
call (717)-901-2238.
ABOUT THE KEYSTONE EXAMS
The Keystone Exams are end-of-course assessments currently designed to assess proficiencies in Algebra I,
Biology, and Literature. For detailed information about how the Keystone Exams are being integrated into the
Pennsylvania graduation requirements, please contact the Pennsylvania Department of Education or visit the
PDE website at http://www.education.pa.gov.
Alignment
The Biology Keystone Exam consists of questions grouped into two modules: Module 1—Cells and Cell
Processes and Module 2—Continuity and Unity of Life. Each module corresponds to specific content, aligned
to statements and specifications included in the course-specific Assessment Anchor documents. The Biology
content included in the Keystone Biology multiple-choice questions will align with the Assessment Anchors
as defined by the Eligible Content statements. The process skills, directives, and action statements will also
specifically align with the Assessment Anchors as defined by the Eligible Content statements.
The content included in Biology constructed-response items aligns with content included in the Eligible
Content statements. The process skills, directives, and action statements included in the performance
demands of the Biology constructed-response items align with specifications included in the Assessment
Anchor statements, the Anchor Descriptor statements, and/or the Eligible Content statements. In other words,
the verbs or action statements used in the constructed-response items or stems can come from the Eligible
Content, Anchor Descriptor, or Assessment Anchor statements.
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The permission to copy and/or use these materials does not extend to commercial purposes.
Pennsylvania Keystone Biology Item and Scoring Sampler—September 2018
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INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
Depth of Knowledge
Webb’s Depth of Knowledge (DOK) was created by Dr. Norman Webb of the Wisconsin Center for Education
Research. Webb’s definition of DOK is the cognitive expectation demanded by standards, curricular activities,
and assessment tasks. Webb’s DOK includes four levels, from the lowest (recall) level to the highest (extended
thinking) level.
Depth of Knowledge
Level 1 Recall
Level 2 Basic Application of Skill/Concept
Level 3 Strategic Thinking
Level 4 Extended Thinking
Each Keystone item has been through a rigorous review process and is assigned a DOK level. For additional
information about DOK, please visit the PDE website at http://static.pdesas.org/Content/Documents/
Keystone_Exam_Program_Overview.pdf.
Exam Format
The Keystone Exams are delivered in a paper-and-pencil format as well as in a computer-based online format.
The multiple-choice questions require students to select the best answer from four possible answer options
and record their answers in the spaces provided. The correct answer for each multiple‐choice question is
worth onepoint. The constructed-response items require students to develop and write (or construct) their
responses. Constructed‐response items in Biology are scored using item‐specific scoring guidelines based
on a 0–3-point scale. Each multiple-choice question is designed to take about one minute to one-and-a-half
minutes to complete. Each constructed‐response item is designed to take about eight minutes to complete.
The estimated time to respond to a test question is the same for both test formats. During an actual exam
administration, students are given additional time as necessary to complete the exam.
Pennsylvania Keystone Biology Item and Scoring Sampler—September 2018
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INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
ITEM AND SCORING SAMPLER FORMAT
This sampler includes the test directions and scoring guidelines that appear in the Keystone Exams. Each
sample multiple-choice question is followed by a table that includes the alignment, the answer key, the DOK,
the percentage
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of students who chose each answer option, and a brief answer option analysis or rationale.
Each constructed-response item is followed by a table that includes the item alignment, the DOK, and the
mean student score. Additionally, each of the included item‐specific scoring guidelines is combined with
sample student responses representing each score point to form a practical, item‐specific scoring guide. The
General Description of Scoring Guidelines for Biology used to develop the item‐specific scoring guidelines
should be used if any additional item‐specific scoring guidelines are created for use within local instructional
programs.
Example Multiple-Choice Question Information Table
Item Information
Alignment Assigned AAEC
Answer Key
Correct Answer
Depth of Knowledge Assigned DOK
p-value A Percentage of students who selected option A
p-value B Percentage of students who selected option B
p-value C Percentage of students who selected option C
p-value D Percentage of students who selected option D
Option Annotations Brief answer option analysis or rationale
Example Open-Ended Item Information Table
Alignment
Assigned AAEC
Depth of Knowledge
Assigned
DOK
Mean Score
2
All p-value percentages listed in the item information tables have been rounded.
Pennsylvania Keystone Biology Item and Scoring Sampler—September 2018
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INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
BIOLOGY EXAM DIRECTIONS
Directions:
Below are the exam directions available to students. These directions may be used to help students navigate
through the exam.
On the following pages of this test booklet are the Keystone Biology Exam questions for Module 1 [or
Module2].
There are two types of questions in this module.
Multiple-Choice Questions:
These questions will ask you to select an answer from among four choices.
• Read each question, and choose the correct answer.
• Only one of the answers provided is correct.
• Record your answer in the Biology answer booklet.
Constructed-Response Questions:
These questions will require you to write your response.
• Be sure to read the directions carefully.
• You cannot receive the highest score for a constructed-response question without following all
directions.
• If the question asks you to do multiple tasks, be sure to complete all tasks.
• If the question asks you to explain, be sure to explain. If the question asks you to analyze,
describe, or compare, be sure to analyze, describe, or compare.
• All responses must be written in the appropriate location within the response box in the
Biology answer booklet. If you use scratch paper to write your draft, be sure to transfer your
final response to the Biology answer document.
In addition, a module may also include scenarios. A scenario contains text, graphics, charts, and/or tables
describing a biological concept, an experiment, or other scientific research. You can use the information
contained in a scenario to answer certain exam questions. Before responding to any scenario questions,
be sure to study the entire scenario and follow the directions for the scenario. You may refer back to the
scenario at any time when answering the scenario questions.
If you finish early, you may check your work in Module 1 [or Module 2] only.
• Do not look ahead at the questions in Module 2 [or back at the questions in Module 1] of your
exam materials.
• After you have checked your work, close your exam materials.
You may refer to this page at any time during this portion of the exam.
Pennsylvania Keystone Biology Item and Scoring Sampler—September 2018
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INFORMATION ABOUT BIOLOGY
GENERAL DESCRIPTION OF SCORING GUIDELINES FOR BIOLOGY
3 Points
• The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of the scientific content, concepts,
and/or procedures required by the task(s).
• The response provides a clear, complete, and correct response as required by the task(s).
The response may contain a minor blemish or omission in work or explanation that does not
detract from demonstrating a thorough understanding.
2 Points
• The response demonstrates a partial understanding of the scientific content, concepts, and/
or procedures required by the task(s).
• The response is somewhat correct with partial understanding of the required scientific
content, concepts, and/or procedures demonstrated and/or explained. The response may
contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
1 Point
• The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of the scientific content, concepts,
and/or procedures required by the task(s).
• The response is somewhat correct with minimal understanding of the required scientific
content, concepts, and/or procedures demonstrated and/or explained. The response may
contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
0 Points
• The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the scientific
content, concepts, and/or procedures as required by the task(s).
• The response may show only information copied or rephrased from the question or insufficient
correct information to receive a score of 1.
Special Categories within zero reported separately:
Blank .................................Blank, entirely erased, entirely crossed out, or consists entirely of
whitespace
Refusal ..............................Refusal to respond to the task
Off Task .............................Makes no reference to the item but is not an intentional refusal
Foreign Language ............Written entirely in a language other than English
Illegible .............................Illegible or incoherent
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BIOLOGY MODULE 1
MULTIPLECHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
Bacterial Cell
flagellum
A scientist observes a single-celled organism with several long, whip-like tails. Which function
do the whip-like tails most likely perform for the organism?
A. defense against predators
B. movement through an environment
C. detection of the location of a light source
D. measurement of atmospheric temperature changes
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.1.2.2
Answer Key
B
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
9%
p-value B
79% (correct answer)
p-value C
7%
p-value D
5%
Option Annotations A. Flagella are used for movement, not for defense.
B. Key: The cell uses flagella for movement.
C. Flagella are not light sensitive; they are used for movement.
D. Flagella are not temperature sensitive; they are used for movement.
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2. Trees are typically able to transport water from their roots to their stems and leaves. Which
statement describes the property of water that most supports the transportation of water to all
parts of a tree?
A. Water forms a crystalline structure when it freezes.
B. Water dissolves fewer substances than any other liquid.
C. Water has strong attractions to itself and many other molecules.
D. Water can absorb large amounts of energy with minimal temperature changes.
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.2.1.1
Answer Key
C
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
5%
p-value B
6%
p-value C
72% (correct answer)
p-value D
17%
Option Annotations A. The crystalline structure forms when water freezes, making
solid water less dense than liquid water. It does not affect the
transportation of water within a tree.
B. Water is considered the universal solvent because it can dissolve
many substances.
C. Key: The attraction allows water to adhere to the inside of tubes
within the tree’s tissues and move against the force of gravity to all
parts of the tree.
D. The high specific heat of water does not affect water’s transport
within the tree.
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3. Which process best describes the assembly of proteins from amino acids?
A. Atoms are linked to form a compound.
B. Monomers are linked to form a polymer.
C. Atoms are added to a monomer until it becomes a polymer.
D. Molecules are added to a compound until it becomes a monomer.
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.2.2.2
Answer Key
B
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
16%
p-value B
61% (correct answer)
p-value C
13%
p-value D
10%
Option Annotations A. Amino acids, not atoms, are complex molecules.
B. Key: Amino acids are monomers linked together to form complex
protein polymers.
C. Adding atoms to a monomer does not make it a polymer.
D. Proteins are polymers, not monomers.
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4. Use the chart below to answer the question.
Biological Molecule Information
Molecule Structure Cellular Use
1
a molecule made mostly of carbon
with two nonpolar chains and a polar
head
is a component of
plasma membranes
2
a polar molecule made of repeating
units of sugar bonded to a phosphate
and a nitrogenous base
stores genetic
information
Which biological molecules are most likely represented by molecules 1 and 2?
A. molecule 1: lipid
molecule 2: nucleic acid
B. molecule 1: lipid
molecule 2: protein
C. molecule 1: carbohydrate
molecule 2: nucleic acid
D. molecule 1: carbohydrate
molecule 2: protein
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.2.2.3
Answer Key
A
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
48% (correct answer)
p-value B
17%
p-value C
23%
p-value D
12%
Option Annotations A. Key: Lipids are key components of the plasma membrane, and a
nucleic acid is characterized by its ability to store genetic information.
B. Molecule 2 is not a protein because proteins are composed of amino
acids.
C. Membrane lipids, not carbohydrates, have polar and nonpolar ends.
D. Molecule 1 is not a carbohydrate because carbohydrates are polar,
and molecule 2 is not a protein because proteins are composed of
amino acids.
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5. Which statement best describes a relationship between enzymes and a simple
biologicalreaction?
A. Enzymes will increase the amount of substrate formed during a biological reaction.
B. Enzymes will decrease the amount of substrate formed during a biological reaction.
C. A reaction rate can be increased when the specific enzyme for a biological reaction
ispresent.
D. A reaction rate can be decreased when multiple enzymes for a biological reaction
arepresent.
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.2.3.1
Answer Key
C
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
19%
p-value B
8%
p-value C
65% (correct answer)
p-value D
8%
Option Annotations A. Substrate is not the product formed during a biological reaction.
B. Substrate is not the product formed during a biological reaction.
C. Key: An enzyme decreases the activation energy of a specific
biological reaction, increasing the rate of reaction.
D. Enzymes increase reaction rates rather than decrease them.
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6. Microbes in the digestive system break down food, which allows nutrients to be absorbed by
the body’s cells. How will these body cells most likely be affected if an individual suffers from a
high fever?
A. The body cells will swell because an increase in temperature promotes greater water
absorption.
B. The body cells will stop absorbing nutrients because the heat melts the lipid bilayer of the
plasma membrane.
C. The body cells will shrivel because the heat eliminates the chemical gradients on either side
of the plasma membrane.
D. The body cells will bring in fewer nutrient molecules because the transport proteins lose
their proper shape due to the high temperature.
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.2.3.2
Answer Key
D
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
20%
p-value B
11%
p-value C
13%
p-value D
56% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. A change in body temperature would not increase the amount of
water that cells absorb.
B. A fever would not increase body temperature enough to melt lipid
bilayers.
C. A change in body temperature would not change the chemical
gradient across the plasma membrane.
D. Key: High temperatures can cause proteins to denature and change
shape.
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7. Use the chart below to answer the question.
Student Classification of Main Energy Conversions
Student Photosynthesis Cellular Respiration
1 mechanical to thermal solar to thermal
2 solar to mechanical chemical to mechanical
3 thermal to solar chemical to solar
4 solar to chemical chemical to chemical
Four students classified the main energy conversions that occur during photosynthesis and
cellular respiration. Which student best classified the energy conversions that occur in the
twoprocesses?
A. student 1
B. student 2
C. student 3
D. student 4
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.3.2.1
Answer Key
D
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
8%
p-value B
14%
p-value C
12%
p-value D
66% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. Photosynthesis converts solar energy to chemical energy, and cellular
respiration converts one form of chemical energy to another form of
chemical energy.
B. Photosynthesis converts solar energy to chemical energy, and cellular
respiration converts one form of chemical energy to another form of
chemical energy.
C. Photosynthesis converts solar energy to chemical energy, and cellular
respiration converts one form of chemical energy to another form of
chemical energy.
D. Key: Photosynthesis converts solar energy to chemical energy, and
cellular respiration converts one form of chemical energy to another
form of chemical energy.
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8. A scientist observed that during the course of a chemical reaction the number of ATP molecules
was reduced. What did the scientist most likely learn from the observation?
A. The reaction produced water.
B. The reaction consumed water.
C. The reaction caused an output of energy.
D. The reaction required an input of energy.
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.3.2.2
Answer Key
D
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
7%
p-value B
10%
p-value C
39%
p-value D
44% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. The formation of ATP produces water.
B. Many processes within a cell can release or consume water.
C. Reactions that result in fewer ATP consume energy.
D. Key: ATP is the energy currency of the cell and is used to fuel
reactions.
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9. Which of the following is most involved in providing structure for a plasma membrane?
A. the number of protein channels embedded in the membrane
B. the types of carbohydrates attached to proteins on the surface
C. the types of proteins that are attached to the surface of the membrane
D. the arrangement of the hydrophobic and hydrophilic ends of the phospholipids
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.4.1.1
Answer Key
D
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
18%
p-value B
13%
p-value C
24%
p-value D
45% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. Channel proteins allow molecules to diffuse into and out of the cell.
B. Carbohydrates define a cell’s characteristics and help it to identify
chemical signals.
C. The types of proteins embedded in the plasma membrane define
which substances can enter and leave the cell.
D. Key: The arrangement of the phospholipids makes the membrane
thin and flexible and limits the substances that can pass into and out
of the cell.
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10. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
Cell Process
outside of cell
inside of cell
cell membrane
Which cell process is best modeled by the diagram?
A. osmosis
B. exocytosis
C. passive transport
D. facilitated diffusion
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.4.1.2
Answer Key
B
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
8%
p-value B
49% (correct answer)
p-value C
26%
p-value D
17%
Option Annotations A. Osmosis is the movement of water across a cell membrane.
B. Key: During exocytosis, a vacuole fuses with the cell membrane,
releasing its contents outside of a cell.
C. Passive transport is the movement of materials down a concentration
gradient.
D. Facilitated diffusion is the passive transport of materials across a cell
membrane through channel proteins.
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11. The shivering mechanism in bumblebees often serves the same purpose as it does in mammals.
During which condition will the action of shivering most help a bumblebee to maintain
homeostasis?
A. decrease in available oxygen
B. low environmental temperature
C. uncontrolled rise in core temperature
D. depletion of oxygen in muscle tissues
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.4.2.1
Answer Key
B
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
6%
p-value B
73% (correct answer)
p-value C
12%
p-value D
9%
Option Annotations A. Shivering helps to return the body to an optimal temperature. It does
not increase oxygen levels.
B. Key: Shivering helps to return the body to an optimal temperature.
C. Shivering helps to increase body temperature to an optimal range. It
does not decrease body temperature.
D. Shivering helps to return the body to an optimal temperature. It does
not affect oxygen levels in tissues.
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THIS PAGE IS
INTENTIONALLY BLANK.
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Directions: Use the information presented on page 18 to answer questions 12 and13.
A New Type of Treatment
Some human diseases involve the unregulated growth of cells. Although some patients are not
affected by these growths, many are harmed. Cells in harmful growths divide uncontrollably and
can eventually invade other cells, tissues, and organs of the body.
Some patients carry a mutation on one or more growth-suppressor genes (GSGs). GSGs helpto
repair damage to DNA. This mutation decreases the individual’s ability to fight these harmful
growths. Recently, researchers reported on the results of using a combination of two types of
medicine to treat patients with unregulated growths caused by a lack of functioning GSGs.
Characteristics of Medicine X
N
H
NH
N
N
N
N
HO
Characteristics of Medicine
Y
• large molecule
• damages DNA
• large molecule
• decreases enzyme
activity
O
O
H
N
N
N
O
HO
HO
N
C
C
When medicine X and medicine Y are used together, they cause the cell processes in the targeted
cells to fail.
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12. In order for medicine X to produce the effects that the researchers observed, it must have
entered into which part of the targeted cells?
A. nucleus
B. ribosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. rough endoplasmic reticulum
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.1.2.1
Answer Key
A
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
73% (correct answer)
p-value B
11%
p-value C
10%
p-value D
6%
Option Annotations A. Key: A medicine that damages DNA would need to enter a cell’s
nucleus.
B. Medicine Y might enter ribosomes since it affects enzyme activity.
C. The Golgi apparatus packages proteins; it does not interact with
DNA.
D. Medicine Y might enter the rough endoplasmic reticulum since
the rough endoplasmic reticulum houses enzyme-manufacturing
ribosomes.
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13. Given the properties of the medicine Y molecule, which mechanism is most likely responsible
for medicine Y’s entry into cells?
A. osmosis
B. exocytosis
C. active transport
D. simple diffusion
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.4.1.2
Answer Key
C
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
11%
p-value B
11%
p-value C
60% (correct answer)
p-value D
18%
Option Annotations A. Osmosis is the movement of water across a cell membrane.
B. Exocytosis moves materials out of a cell.
C. Key: The movement of large molecules, like medicine Y, into a cell
requires energy and is therefore active transport.
D. Simple diffusion is the flow of small molecules across a cell
membrane.
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THIS PAGE IS
INTENTIONALLY BLANK.
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CONSTRUCTEDRESPONSE ITEM
14. Use the list below to answer the question.
Cell Structures
• plasma membrane
• endoplasmic reticulum
• Golgi apparatus
• mitochondria
• nucleus
• ribosomes
A scientist identifies several structures in a cell and organizes them in a list.
Part A: Describe how the cell structures in this list can be used to classify the cell
as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic. Use examples of the structures that
would help identify the cell in your answer.
Go to the next page to finish question 14.
GO ON
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14. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Compare how both prokaryotes and eukaryotes use two of the cell
structures listed and describe the common functions of these structures.
Structure 1:
Common function:
Structure 2:
Common function:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
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SCORING GUIDE
#14 Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.1.2.1
Depth of Knowledge
3
Mean Score
1.12
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline
Score Description
3
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of comparing and contrasting
cellular structures and their functions in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells by
• Describing how the list of cell structures can be used to classify a cell as
prokaryotic or eukaryotic and providing example(s) of structures that allowed that
classification
• Identifying two of the cell structures found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
and describing the function of each common to both cell types.
The response is clear, complete, and correct.
2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of comparing and contrasting
cellular structures and their functions in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells by
• Using the list of structures in a cell to classify whether the cell is prokaryotic or
eukaryotic and providing example(s) of structures that allowed that classification
and identifying one cell structure found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
and describing the function
OR
• Identifying two of the cell structures found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
and describing the function of each common to both cell types.
The response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
1
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of comparing and contrasting
cellular structures and their functions in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells by
• Using the list of structures in a cell to classify whether the cell is prokaryotic or
eukaryotic and providing example(s) of structures that allowed that classification
OR
• Identifying one of the cell structures found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
and describing its function common to both cell types.
The response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
0
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the
concept being tested.
Non-
scorables
B – No response written or refusal to respond
F – Foreign language
K – Off task
U – Unreadable
Note: No deductions should be taken for misspelled words or grammatical errors.
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Responses that will receive credit:
Part A (1 point):
• The cell is eukaryotic because it has a nucleus
OR
• The cell is eukaryotic because it has mitochondria
OR
• The cell is eukaryotic because it has Golgi apparatus
OR
• The cell is eukaryotic because it has endoplasmic reticulum
Part B (2 points; 1 point each response):
• Plasma membrane – controls what moves in and out of the cell or provides a barrier around
the cell or gives structural support to the cell
AND
• Ribosomes – synthesize proteins or perform translation
Background Information:
• For Part A, it should be apparent that the student understands that prokaryotic cells do not
have a nucleus or any of the membrane-bound organelles, so this must be a eukaryotic cell.
• For Part B, a student will not receive a point for identifying both structures without any
description of function.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 3 points
14. Use the list below to answer the question.
Cell Structures
• plasma membrane
• endoplasmic reticulum
• Golgi apparatus
• mitochondria
• nucleus
• ribosomes
A scientist identifies several structures in a cell and organizes them in a list.
Part A: Describe how the cell structures in this list can be used to classify the cell
as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic. Use examples of the structures that
would help identify the cell in your answer.
Go to the next page to finish question 14.
GO ON
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14. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Compare how both prokaryotes and eukaryotes use two of the cell
structures listed and describe the common functions of these structures.
Structure 1:
Common function:
Structure 2:
Common function:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of comparing and contrasting cellular structures and their functions in
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In Part A, the response describes how the list of cell structures can be used to classify a cell as
prokaryotic or eukaryotic and provides examples of structures that allowed that classification (“Prokaryotic cells have no nucleus
or mitochondria, but eukaryotes do”). In Part B, the response identifies two of the cell structures found in both prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells and describes the function of each (“Plasma membrane. . . Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes use the plasma
membrane to sepertate themselves from their environment and help maintain homeostasis; ribosomes . . . Both prokaryotes and
eukaryotes use ribosomes to aid in protien manufacturing”). The response is clear, complete, and correct.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 2 points
14. Use the list below to answer the question.
Cell Structures
• plasma membrane
• endoplasmic reticulum
• Golgi apparatus
• mitochondria
• nucleus
• ribosomes
A scientist identifies several structures in a cell and organizes them in a list.
Part A: Describe how the cell structures in this list can be used to classify the cell
as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic. Use examples of the structures that
would help identify the cell in your answer.
Go to the next page to finish question 14.
GO ON
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14. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Compare how both prokaryotes and eukaryotes use two of the cell
structures listed and describe the common functions of these structures.
Structure 1:
Common function:
Structure 2:
Common function:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of comparing and contrasting cellular structures and their functions in
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In Part A, the response describes how the list of cell structures can be used to classify a cell as
prokaryotic or eukaryotic and provides an example of a structure that allowed that classification (“The cell would be classified as
eukaryotic since one of the structures is a nucleus. Only eukaryotic cells have this structure”). In Part B, the response identifies only
one cell structure found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells (“ribosomes”) and describes its function common to both cell
types (“make proteins”). The other structure identified (“nucleus”) is not found in prokaryotic cells.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 1 point
Part A
Question 14
Page 1 of 2
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Part B
Question 14
Page 2 of 2
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of comparing and contrasting cellular structures and their functions in prokaryotic
and eukaryotic cells. In Part A, the response describes how the list of cell structures can be used to classify a cell as prokaryotic or eukaryotic
and provides an example of a structure that allowed that classification (“The cell listed above is a eukaryotic cell because it contains a nucleus.
Prokaryotic cells do not contain a nucleus”). In Part B, both structures identified are incorrect (“Golgi apparatus and Endoplasmic reticulum”) as
these structures are found in eukaryotic cells only.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 0 points
Part A
Question 14
Page 1 of 2
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Part B
Question 14
Page 2 of 2
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the concept being tested. In Part A, the response
incorrectly describes how the cell structures in the list can be used to classify a cell as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic (“They can be used to
describe a eukaryotic cell because only eukaryotic cells use a plasma membrane”). In Part B, the first structure identified (“nucleus”) is not found
in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. While the second structure identified (“ribosomes”) is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells, the common function (“Both use ribosomes as transport throughout the cell”) is incorrect.
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CONSTRUCTEDRESPONSE ITEM
15. During physical education class, some students ran one mile. After their run, the
students recorded changes they experienced.
Changes Experienced
• sweating
• muscle cramps
• decreased energy
• increased heart rate
• increased breathing rate
• increased thirst
• increased body temperature
Select three changes experienced by the students and explain how each change can
represent a homeostatic mechanism.
Change 1:
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Change 2:
Change 3:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
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SCORING GUIDE
#15 Item Information
Alignment
BIO.A.4.2.1
Depth of Knowledge
3
Mean Score
0.96
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline
Score Description
3
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of how organisms maintain
homeostasis (e.g., thermoregulation, water regulation, oxygen regulation) by explaining
how three changes experienced by the students represent homeostatic mechanisms.
The response is clear, complete, and correct.
2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of how organisms maintain
homeostasis (e.g., thermoregulation, water regulation, oxygen regulation) by explaining
how two changes experienced by the students represent homeostatic mechanisms. The
response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
1
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of how organisms maintain
homeostasis (e.g., thermoregulation, water regulation, oxygen regulation) by explaining
how one change experienced by the students represents a homeostatic mechanism. The
response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
0
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the
concept being tested.
Non-
scorables
B – No response written or refusal to respond
F – Foreign language
K – Off task
U – Unreadable
Note: No deductions should be taken for misspelled words or grammatical errors.
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Responses that will receive credit (1 point each):
• Sweating is a response to increased temperature. The evaporation of sweat cools the body
(lowers the temperature).
• Muscle cramps are a response to depleted electrolytes, dehydration, depletion of ATP, or
build-up of lactic acid. The cramps will cause the person to slow down or stop, thus reducing
the depletion of electrolytes, water, and ATP.
• Decreased energy is a response to insufficient oxygenation of tissues, or depletion of fuel
(glucose) or water. Fatigue will cause the person to slow down or stop, allowing time for the
body to stabilize.
• Increased heart rate is a response to the tissues (especially muscles) needing more oxygen.
The heart pumps faster in order to supply the muscles with oxygen faster. (This also helps the
body get rid of carbon dioxide more quickly.)
• Increased breathing rate is a response to the need for more oxygen and the need to rid the
body of carbon dioxide. The faster breathing rate will help supply oxygen to muscles more
quickly and also eliminate carbon dioxide more quickly.
• Increased thirst is a response to dehydration caused by sweating and increased breathing
rate. Thirst will cause the person to seek water to drink to achieve homeostasis.
• Increased temperature is caused when some of the energy that powers muscles is lost as
heat. The rise in temperature stimulates sweating, which helps cool the body and bring the
temperature back to normal. Increased temperature also contributes to increased heart rate
and breathing rate. “Feeling hot” may cause a person to seek shade or air conditioning, or to
slow down or stop, allowing the body to achieve homeostasis.
Background information: Homeostasis is the maintenance of relatively stable internal and chemical
conditions despite changes in the external environment.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 3 points
15. During physical education class, some students ran one mile. After their run, the
students recorded changes they experienced.
Changes Experienced
• sweating
• muscle cramps
• decreased energy
• increased heart rate
• increased breathing rate
• increased thirst
• increased body temperature
Select three changes experienced by the students and explain how each change can
represent a homeostatic mechanism.
Change 1:
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
Change 2:
Change 3:
This response demonstrates a thorough understanding of how organisms maintain homeostasis by explaining how
three of the changes experienced represent a homeostatic mechanism. The student correctly describes how sweating
is a response to your body being hot, activating sweat glands to cool you by evaporation. The student states that an
increased heart rate represents a homeostatic mechanism because your heart must pump faster to keep up with your
muscles’ need for more oxygen. Lastly, the student describes how increased thirst represents a homeostatic mechanism
by signaling to your body the need to replenish fluids. This response is clear, complete, and correct.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 2 points
15. During physical education class, some students ran one mile. After their run, the
students recorded changes they experienced.
Changes Experienced
• sweating
• muscle cramps
• decreased energy
• increased heart rate
• increased breathing rate
• increased thirst
• increased body temperature
Select three changes experienced by the students and explain how each change can
represent a homeostatic mechanism.
Change 1:
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Change 2:
Change 3:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
This response demonstrates a partial understanding of how organisms maintain homeostasis by explaining how two
changes experienced represent a homeostatic mechanism. The student correctly describes how sweating represents a
homeostatic mechanism. ("As your body heats up you need to cool down so you start to sweat”). The student also describes
how decreased energy represents a homeostatic mechanism. ("As your body heats up you need to cool down so you start to
sweat”). The response describing how muscle cramps represent a homeostatic mechanism is incomplete.
STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 2 points
15. During physical education class, some students ran one mile. After their run, the
students recorded changes they experienced.
Changes Experienced
• sweating
• muscle cramps
• decreased energy
• increased heart rate
• increased breathing rate
• increased thirst
• increased body temperature
Select three changes experienced by the students and explain how each change can
represent a homeostatic mechanism.
Change 1:
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 1 point
15. During physical education class, some students ran one mile. After their run, the
students recorded changes they experienced.
Changes Experienced
• sweating
• muscle cramps
• decreased energy
• increased heart rate
• increased breathing rate
• increased thirst
• increased body temperature
Select three changes experienced by the students and explain how each change can
represent a homeostatic mechanism.
Change 1:
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Change 2:
Change 3:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
This response demonstrates a minimal understanding how organisms maintain homeostasis by describing how one
change experienced represents a homeostatic mechanism. The student correctly describes how the body sweats in
response to getting hot as an attempt to cool itself off. The additional changes describe why the body experiences the
changes without describing how each represents a homeostatic mechanism.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 0 points
15. During physical education class, some students ran one mile. After their run, the
students recorded changes they experienced.
Changes Experienced
• sweating
• muscle cramps
• decreased energy
• increased heart rate
• increased breathing rate
• increased thirst
• increased body temperature
Select three changes experienced by the students and explain how each change can
represent a homeostatic mechanism.
Change 1:
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Change 2:
Change 3:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
This response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the concept being tested. The student
attempts to describe the changes experienced but does not explain how each represents a homeostatic mechanism.
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BIOLOGY MODULE 1SUMMARY DATA
MULTIPLECHOICE
Sample
Number
Alignment Answer Key
Depth of
Knowledge
p-value
A
p-value
B
p-value
C
p-value
D
1 BIO.A.1.2.2 B 2 9% 79% 7% 5%
2 BIO.A.2.2.1 C 2 5% 6% 72% 17%
3 BIO.A.2.2.2 B 2 16% 61% 13% 10%
4 BIO.A.2.2.3 A 2 48% 17% 23% 12%
5 BIO.A.2.3.1 C 2 19% 8% 65% 8%
6 BIO.A.2.3.2 D 2 20% 11% 13% 56%
7 BIO.A.3.2.1 D 2 8% 14% 12% 66%
8 BIO.A.3.2.2 D 2 7% 10% 39% 44%
9 BIO.A.4.1.1 D 2 18% 13% 24% 45%
10 BIO.A.4.1.2 B 2 8% 49% 26% 17%
11 BIO.A.4.2.1 B 2 6% 73% 12% 9%
12 (P) BIO.A.1.2.1 A 2 73% 11% 10% 6%
13 (P) BIO.A.4.1.2 C 2 11% 11% 60% 18%
CONSTRUCTEDRESPONSE
Sample
Number
Alignment Points
Depth of
Knowledge
Mean Score
14 BIO.A.1.2.1 3 3 1.12
15 BIO.A.4.2.1 3 3 0.96
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BIOLOGY MODULE 2
MULTIPLECHOICE QUESTIONS
1. At a point in the cell cycle, chromosomes have aligned near the middle of a cell. Which
sequence of events will the cell need to complete to produce two identical daughter cells?
A. anaphase telophase cytokinesis
B. anaphase II telophase II cytokinesis II
C. prophase metaphase anaphase
D. metaphase II anaphase II telophase II
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.1.1.1
Answer Key
A
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
48% (correct answer)
p-value B
13%
p-value C
25%
p-value D
14%
Option Annotations A. Key: Chromosomes align during metaphase, which is followed by
anaphase.
B. This sequence describes meiosis, which produces four unique
daughter cells.
C. Chromosomes align during metaphase, which occurs after prophase.
D. This sequence describes meiosis, which produces four unique
daughter cells.
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2. Use the chart below to answer the question.
Student Comparisons of Meiosis and Mitosis
Student Outcome of Meiosis Outcome of Mitosis
1 two haploid cells two diploid cells
2 two diploid cells four haploid cells
3 four haploid cells two diploid cells
4 four diploid cells four haploid cells
Which student correctly compared the outcomes of meiosis and mitosis?
A. student 1
B. student 2
C. student 3
D. student 4
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.1.1.2
Answer Key
C
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
12%
p-value B
17%
p-value C
10% (correct answer)
p-value D
61%
Option Annotations A. Meiosis produces four, not just two, haploid cells.
B. Meiosis produces haploid cells, and mitosis produces diploid cells.
C. Key: Meiosis produces four haploid daughter cells, and mitosis
produces two diploid daughter cells.
D. Meiosis produces haploid cells, and mitosis produces diploid cells.
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3. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
DNA Replication
T
?
C
?
C
?
A
?
start of
replication
The DNA Replication diagram is incomplete. Which nucleotide sequence accurately shows the
DNA strand that would be produced during DNA replication?
A. TCCA
B. AGGT
C. UCCU
D. AGGU
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.1.2.1
Answer Key
B
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
14%
p-value B
61% (correct answer)
p-value C
4%
p-value D
21%
Option Annotations A. During DNA replication, T is not complementary to T, C is not
complementary to C, and A is not complementary to A.
B. Key: A pairs with T, G pairs with C twice, and T pairs with A.
C. During DNA replication, U is not complementary to T, C is not
complementary to C, and U is not complementary to A.
D. During DNA replication, U is not complementary to A. U is
complementary to A during RNA transcription.
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4. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
Genetic Event
bbBB bBb B
The genetic event shown in the diagram can occur during meiosis. Which statement best
describes this type of event?
A. Gene sequences that are identical are replicated and added to the homologous
chromosome.
B. Sections of DNA between nonhomologous chromosomes are exchanged, decreasing
genetic diversity.
C. Segments of homologous chromosomes are exchanged, resulting in cells that will be
genetically different.
D. The traits from two sections of the same DNA strand are altered, resulting in the production
of a new species.
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.2.1.2
Answer Key
C
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
9%
p-value B
13%
p-value C
66% (correct answer)
p-value D
12%
Option Annotations A. The two homologous chromosomes are breaking at different end
pieces and exchange unique information.
B. These are homologous chromosomes that exchange genetic material
during a chromosomal crossover event. This takes place during
sexual reproduction, which helps increase genetic diversity.
C. Key: The chromosomes exchange segments during crossing-over,
which results in recombinant chromosomes.
D. These are homologous chromosomes from the same species.
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5. Which activity would a cell be unable to perform if a mutation occurred that caused the Golgi
apparatus to stop functioning?
A. packaging proteins for transport out of the cell
B. processing mRNA as it is transcribed from DNA strands
C. providing the location for the delivery of amino acids by tRNA
D. producing a template to guide the sequencing of amino acid chains
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.2.2.2
Answer Key
A
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
67% (correct answer)
p-value B
13%
p-value C
12%
p-value D
8%
Option Annotations A. Key: A function of the Golgi apparatus is to package and process
proteins.
B. The process of transcription occurs in the nucleus.
C. The ribosome provides the location for the delivery of amino acids.
D. DNA in the nucleus provides the template.
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6. Which statement describes how cloning is different from selective breeding?
A. Cloning eliminates recessive alleles from a genome.
B. Cloning transforms harmful traits into beneficial traits.
C. Cloning corrects or replaces mutated gene sequences.
D. Cloning results in offspring genetically identical to the parents.
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.2.4.1
Answer Key
D
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
10%
p-value B
7%
p-value C
9%
p-value D
74% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. Cloning is not the removal of alleles from a genome.
B. Cloning involves making exact genetic copies; therefore, it does not
transform harmful traits into beneficial traits.
C. Cloning may make only an exact copy of a mutated gene sequence.
It cannot correct or replace a gene sequence.
D. Key: Cloning results in exact copies of genetic material, including
offspring that are identical to their parents.
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7. Which statement best describes how geographic isolation can contribute to land animal
speciation?
A. Geographic isolation physically separates populations but allows them to interact.
B. Geographic isolation physically separates populations and prevents them from interacting.
C. Geographic isolation causes genetic changes in individual organisms but allows them
to interact.
D. Geographic isolation causes genetic changes in individual organisms and prevents them
from interacting.
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.3.1.2
Answer Key
B
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
11%
p-value B
59% (correct answer)
p-value C
12%
p-value D
18%
Option Annotations A. Geographic isolation prevents populations from interacting.
B. Key: Geographic isolation involves a physical separation of
populations that prevents their interaction.
C. Geographic isolation prevents populations from interacting.
D. Geographic isolation is caused by physical separation of populations.
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8. Use the diagram below to answer the question.
femur
pelvis
Vestigial Bones in a Whale
Whales have vestigial femurs and pelvic bones. Which statement explains why the vestigial
structures are most likely present in whales?
A. Whales evolved over time from ancestors that lived on land.
B. Whales evolved over time from fish species that once lived on land.
C. Hind legs are an adaptation in whales that is selected for as they evolve into land mammals.
D. Hind legs are an evolutionary adaptation observed in whales that walk along the ocean
floor.
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Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.3.2.1
Answer Key
A
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
66% (correct answer)
p-value B
17%
p-value C
8%
p-value D
9%
Option Annotations A. Key: A pelvis and a femur are evolutionary remnants that indicate
whales likely once walked on land.
B. A pelvis and a femur indicate a land-dwelling animal rather than a
water-dwelling animal like a fish.
C. Since the bones are not needed by whales in their current
environment, there is no selection pressure to evolve into land
mammals.
D. Whales do not walk on the ocean floor.
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9. A student listed characteristics of a classroom aquarium ecosystem. Which characteristic is a
biotic component of the aquarium ecosystem?
A. The water temperature is 23°C.
B. The pH of the water is usually between 6.5 and 6.8.
C. The ammonia is controlled with a filter that uses two types of bacteria.
D. The lighting is supplied by natural sunlight and a fluorescent light bulb.
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.4.1.2
Answer Key
C
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
11%
p-value B
16%
p-value C
62% (correct answer)
p-value D
11%
Option Annotations A. Water temperature is an abiotic component of the ecosystem.
B. The pH of the water is an abiotic component of the ecosystem.
C. Key: The bacteria in the filter are a biotic component of the
ecosystem.
D. Lighting is an abiotic component of the ecosystem.
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10. Tadpoles grown in ponds with high densities of tadpoles have lower survival and growth rates
than tadpoles grown in ponds with lower densities of tadpoles. Which interaction between
tadpoles grown in high-tadpole-density ponds would most likely cause the decreased survival
and growth rates?
A. symbiosis
B. mutualism
C. competition
D. commensalism
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.4.2.2
Answer Key
C
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
9%
p-value B
12%
p-value C
72% (correct answer)
p-value D
7%
Option Annotations A. Symbiosis describes either a beneficial or harmful relationship.
B. Mutualism is a type of symbiosis in which both organisms benefit.
C. Key: Tadpoles in low-density ponds have less competition for
resources.
D. Commensalism is a type of symbiosis in which one organism
benefits, and the other is unaffected.
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11. Use the graph below to answer the question.
Time (years)
Number of Individuals
in Population
Population over Time
Which population description is most likely represented by the graph?
A. A population of birds quickly increases but then becomes stable due to limiting factors in
the environment.
B. A population of mice slowly increases but then fluctuates seasonally as predators raise their
young and limit prey populations.
C. A population of fish quickly increases in the spring when there is plenty of food but then
decreases quickly in the fall when food is limited.
D. A population of wolves slowly increases because of limiting factors in the environment but
then increases constantly when additional prey migrate into the environment.
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Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.4.2.5
Answer Key
A
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
69% (correct answer)
p-value B
8%
p-value C
6%
p-value D
17%
Option Annotations A. Key: The trend line on the graph shows that the population increases
slowly at first, then rapidly increases, and then levels off.
B. The trend line on the graph does not show a seasonal fluctuation in
population.
C. The trend line on the graph does not show a decrease.
D. The trend line on the graph shows that the population levels off after
a certain amount of time.
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Directions: Use the information presented on page 64 to answer questions12 and13.
An Erie Ecosystem
Presque Isle is located along the short stretch of Pennsylvania coastline on Lake Erie.
Presque Isle and Vicinity
Erie,
Pennsylvania
Presque Isle
Lake Erie
Presque Isle
Bay
N
WE
S
Many different species of plants and animals live in the waters near Presque Isle. An environmental
scientist decided to investigate the impact of human activity on the environment surrounding
Presque Isle. The scientist used a net to catch several different fish species in the waters off the west
shore of the isle. The scientist also took water samples and scrapings from the bottom of Lake Erie
to analyze. The scientist was able to identify several different organisms. The food web shows the
relationship of some of the organisms within the Presque Isle coastal ecosystem.
Food Web
sea lampreys walleyes
lake
whitefish
yellow
perch
amphipods
mayflies
mussels
zooplankton
phytoplankton
cyclopoids
The scientist observed that very few amphipods were present in the water samples that were
collected. The scientist thought that the reduced number of amphipods might indicate an
endangered ecosystem. In a preliminary report, the scientist hypothesized that the absence of
amphipods was due to pesticides being released into Lake Erie that were especially toxic to aquatic
invertebrates.
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12. Use the table below to answer the question.
Step Action
1 Analyze the water for the presence of different pesticides.
2
Communicate the data and results of the investigation to a peer-reviewed
scientific journal.
3
Allow many other scientists to perform experiments, review the data, and
agree with the hypothesis.
4
Draw a conclusion about any pesticides found in the water that could be
causing the extinction of water fleas.
5
Collect additional samples from Presque Isle Bay and the waters north
and east of Presque Isle.
Which sequence of steps is needed for the scientist’s hypothesis about the absence of
amphipods to eventually become a theory?
A. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
B. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
C. 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
D. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.3.3.1
Answer Key
C
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
11%
p-value B
14%
p-value C
68% (correct answer)
p-value D
7%
Option Annotations A. Experiments must first be conducted before they can be repeated.
B. Conclusions cannot be drawn before the samples are collected and
tested.
C. Key: The correct order of the steps in the scientific process is to
collect additional samples, analyze the samples, draw conclusions,
communicate the data and results, and allow other scientists to
repeat the experiments.
D. Conclusions cannot be drawn before the samples are tested.
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13. Asian carp are an invasive species of fish. These large fish eat up to 40% of their body weight
per day by feeding on phytoplankton. The carp also reproduce quickly. If these fish were to
enter Lake Erie, how would the Presque Isle coastal ecosystem most likely be affected?
A. Producers in the ecosystem would grow at a faster rate, and smaller fish such as yellow
perch would thrive.
B. The invasive fish would prey on mollusks such as mussels, but native fish species would
quickly eat the invasive fish.
C. Consumers in the higher trophic levels would suffer stress, but crustaceans such as
amphipods would be unaffected.
D. Most consumers in the ecosystem would face a shortage of food, and larger fish, such as
walleye, would be unable to thrive.
Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.4.2.4
Answer Key
D
Depth of Knowledge
2
p-value A
9%
p-value B
10%
p-value C
8%
p-value D
73% (correct answer)
Option Annotations A. Phytoplankton (producers) are the main food source for Asian carp.
As the Asian carp population increased, producer populations would
decrease.
B. Asian carp would rely on phytoplankton, not mollusks, for food. The
native fish primarily feed on mayflies and mussels, not on other fish.
C. Amphipods would experience increased competition for food
resources.
D. Key: Asian carp would reduce the amount of phytoplankton available
to primary consumers, causing secondary and tertiary consumers to
have fewer available food resources.
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CONSTRUCTEDRESPONSE ITEM
14. In the 1800s Gregor Mendel published a scientific paper based on pea plant
experiments. In the paper he made the following conclusion:
Traits have two possible forms, which are determined by the inheritance of two factors.
One factor is inherited from each parent. One form of the trait is dominant and the
other recessive. When the offspring inherit one or more dominant factors, they will
display that form of the trait.
Part A: Describe how one part of Mendel’s conclusion is consistent with current
scientific knowledge of inheritance.
Go to the next page to finish question 14.
GO ON
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14. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Since Mendel’s paper was published, other forms of inheritance have been
discovered. Describe two examples of how Mendel’s conclusion does not
fully explain the current scientific understanding of inheritance.
Example 1:
Example 2:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
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SCORING GUIDE
#14 Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.2.1.1
Depth of Knowledge
3
Mean Score
1.26
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline
Score Description
3
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of describing and/or predicting
observed patterns of inheritance by
• Describing how one part of Mendel’s conclusions is consistent with current
scientific knowledge of inheritance AND
• Describing an example of how Mendel’s conclusions do not fully explain other
forms of inheritance that have been discovered AND
• Describing a second example of how Mendel’s conclusions do not fully explain
other forms of inheritance that have been discovered.
The response is clear, complete, and correct.
2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of describing and/or predicting
observed patterns of inheritance by fulfilling two of the bullets. The response may
contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
• Describing how one part of Mendel’s conclusions is consistent with current
scientific knowledge of inheritance OR
• Describing an example of how Mendel’s conclusions do not fully explain other
forms of inheritance that have been discovered OR
• Describing a second example of how Mendel’s conclusions do not fully explain
other forms of inheritance that have been discovered.
1
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of describing and/or predicting
observed patterns of inheritance by fulfilling one of the bullets. The response may
contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
• Describing how one part of Mendel’s conclusions is consistent with current
scientific knowledge of inheritance OR
• Describing an example of how Mendel’s conclusions do not fully explain other
forms of inheritance that have been discovered OR
• Describing a second example of how Mendel’s conclusions do not fully explain
other forms of inheritance that have been discovered.
0
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the
concept being tested.
Non-
scorables
B – No response written or refusal to respond
F – Foreign language
K – Off task
U – Unreadable
Note: No deductions should be taken for misspelled words or grammatical errors.
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Responses that will receive credit:
Part A (1 point):
• Mendel’s “factors” are what we now call “alleles.” We now know that alleles are found on
chromosomes and that, in each cell of an individual, one set of chromosomes is from the
mother and one set is from the father. So for each trait, an individual inherits one allele for that
trait from the mother and one from the father.
• We now know that meiosis occurs to make sex cells that have one set of chromosomes, and
therefore one allele (or factor) for each trait. When the sex cells fuse in sexual reproduction,
the offspring has inherited one set of chromosomes from each parent, and therefore one allele
for each trait from each parent.
• We know that a dominant trait is often caused by having an allele that codes for a protein that
is functional, and a recessive trait is caused by having only recessive alleles that code for a
non-functional protein (or that are not transcribed).
Part B (2 points, 1 point for each of two examples):
• Traits that show incomplete dominance are not explained by Mendel’s conclusions. In
incomplete dominance, heterozygotes have a phenotype that is like a blend of the “recessive”
and “dominant” phenotypes (e.g., displays an intermediate coloration between the dominant
color and recessive color, such as red flower color, pink flower color, and white flower color
for a species of plant).
• Traits that show co-dominance are not explained by Mendel’s conclusions. In co-dominance,
heterozygotes have a phenotype that displays both the “recessive” and “dominant”
phenotypes (e.g., a black rooster and white hen have “checkered” offspring).
• In males, sex-linked traits are not determined by the inheritance of two factors, since they
have only one X chromosome, which they inherit from their mother.
• Some traits have more than two possible forms because there are more than two possible
alleles that affect that trait. This is “multiple allele” inheritance and examples are ABO blood
types and feather color in pigeons.
• Some traits are caused by more than one gene and have several possible phenotypes. These
are polygenic traits (or quantitative characters). Examples are eye color, hair color, skin color,
height, etc.
• Some traits are primarily determined by one gene, but can be affected by a second gene. So
the phenotype is determined by the genotypes of both genes. This is called epistasis. For
example, B_C_ mice are gray, bbC_ mice are brown, and B_cc and bbcc mice are white.
• Some traits are caused by a chromosomal abnormality or chromosomal mutation, in which a
chromosome or section of a chromosome is either missing or there is an extra copy. These
traits are not caused by only two alleles.
• Some traits are affected by environment and genes, so the phenotype is not solely dependent
on the genotype. In these cases, the phenotype is affected by diet or exposure to sunlight or
soil pH, etc.
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Background Information:
• Mendel’s “factors” are the same as alleles, which are the possible forms of a gene.
• A “phenotype” is effectively a trait or characteristic.
• The genotype is the alleles an individual has for a gene.
• Heterozygotes have one dominant allele and one recessive allele, or two different alleles for a
trait. Homozygotes have two of the same alleles.
• To receive credit in Part B, students do not need to provide real-world examples of the
described differences between Mendel’s conclusion and current scientific understandings of
inheritance.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 3 points
14. In the 1800s Gregor Mendel published a scientific paper based on pea plant
experiments. In the paper he made the following conclusion:
Traits have two possible forms, which are determined by the inheritance of two factors.
One factor is inherited from each parent. One form of the trait is dominant and the
other recessive. When the offspring inherit one or more dominant factors, they will
display that form of the trait.
Part A: Describe how one part of Mendel’s conclusion is consistent with current
scientific knowledge of inheritance.
Go to the next page to finish question 14.
GO ON
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14. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Since Mendel’s paper was published, other forms of inheritance have been
discovered. Describe two examples of how Mendel’s conclusion does not
fully explain the current scientific understanding of inheritance.
Example 1:
Example 2:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of describing and/or predicting observed patterns of inheritance.
In Part A, the response correctly describes how one part of Mendel’s conclusions is consistent with current scientific
knowledge of inheritance: “...many traits are determined by alleles ...” In Part B, the response correctly describes two
examples of how Mendel’s conclusions do not fully explain other forms of inheritance that have been discovered.
Example 1: “... certain traits are codominant, meaning that neither is dominant or recessive.” Example 2: “... multi allele
traits. Some traits are not determined entirely by one allele, and are instead made up of a combination of several alleles.” The
response is clear, complete, and correct.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 2 points
Part A
Question 14
Page 1 of 2
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Part B
Question 14
Page 2 of 2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of describing and/or predicting observed patterns of inheritance. In Part A, the
response correctly describes how one part of Mendel’s conclusions is consistent with current scientific knowledge of inheritance: “...
organisms today inherit alleles from both their parents.” In Part B, the response correctly describes only one example of how Mendel’s
conclusions do not fully explain other forms of inheritance that have been discovered. Example 1: “Genetic mutations can occur causing a
new trait that neither parent carried.” Example 2 for Part B is not acceptable and does not receive any credit. The response contains some
work that is incomplete or unclear.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 1 point
14. In the 1800s Gregor Mendel published a scientific paper based on pea plant
experiments. In the paper he made the following conclusion:
Traits have two possible forms, which are determined by the inheritance of two factors.
One factor is inherited from each parent. One form of the trait is dominant and the
other recessive. When the offspring inherit one or more dominant factors, they will
display that form of the trait.
Part A: Describe how one part of Mendel’s conclusion is consistent with current
scientific knowledge of inheritance.
Go to the next page to finish question 14.
GO ON
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14. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part B: Since Mendel’s paper was published, other forms of inheritance have been
discovered. Describe two examples of how Mendel’s conclusion does not
fully explain the current scientific understanding of inheritance.
Example 1:
Example 2:
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of describing and/or predicting observed patterns of inheritance.
In Part A, the response correctly describes how one part of Mendel’s conclusions is consistent with current scientific
knowledge of inheritance: “When we are born we inherit two factors, one from each parent.” OR “When we get the dominant
factors, we will display that trait.” Either is correct for credit in Part A. In Part B, the response does not describe any correct
examples of how Mendel’s conclusions do not fully explain other forms of inheritance that have been discovered.
Example 2 “Don’t always display that trait” needs more description for credit. Neither example receives any credit. The
response contains some work that is incomplete or unclear.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 0 points
Part A
Question 14
Page 1 of 2
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Part B
Question 14
Page 2 of 2
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of describing and/or predicting observed patterns of
inheritance. In Part A, the response does not correctly describe how one part of Mendel’s conclusions is consistent with current scientific
knowledge of inheritance and does not receive any credit. In Part B, the response does not describe any correct examples of how Mendel’s
conclusions do not fully explain other forms of inheritance that have been discovered. Both examples provided are incorrect and do not
receive any credit. The response contains work that is incomplete or unclear.
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CONSTRUCTEDRESPONSE ITEM
15. Use the circle graph below to answer the question.
Occurrence of Two Traits
in a Population
trait 1
trait 2
The graph shows the frequency of two traits, 1 and 2, in a population.
Part A: Use information from the circle graph to infer which trait is most likely
favored by natural selection.
Part B: Explain how natural selection could lead to the trait distribution shown in
the circle graph.
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part C: Scientists predict that over time 0% of the population will have trait2.
Explain why this change in trait distribution could result in negative
consequences for the population.
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
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SCORING GUIDE
#15 Item Information
Alignment
BIO.B.3.1.1
Depth of Knowledge
3
Mean Score
1.63
Item-Specific Scoring Guideline
Score Description
3
The response demonstrates a thorough understanding of how natural selection can
impact allele frequencies of a population by
• Using information from a circle graph to infer which of two traits is most likely
favored by natural selection
• Explaining how natural selection could lead to the trait distribution shown in the
graph
• Explaining why losing a trait from a population could result in negative
consequences for the population.
The response is clear, complete, and correct.
2
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of how natural selection can impact
allele frequencies of a population by fulfilling two of the bullets under the 3-point
response. The response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
1
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of how natural selection can
impact allele frequencies of a population by fulfilling one of the bullets listed under the
3-point response. The response may contain some work that is incomplete or unclear.
0
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate any understanding of the
concept being tested.
Non-
scorables
B – No response written or refusal to respond
F – Foreign language
K – Off task
U – Unreadable
Note: No deductions should be taken for misspelled words or grammatical errors.
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Responses that will receive credit:
Part A (1 point):
• Trait 1 is most likely favored by natural selection, since it is the more common trait.
Part B (1 point):
• Natural selection causes desirable traits to increase in frequency in the population, so trait 1
is likely the trait most favored by natural selection because individuals with this trait are more
likely to survive and reproduce.
OR
• Trait 1 offers some advantage in the environment, so individuals with trait 1 are more likely to
survive and reproduce successfully than individuals with trait 2. So over time the percentage
of the population that has trait 1 increases gradually.
OR
• Perhaps in the past all members of this population had trait 2. Then one individual was born
with trait 1 (due to a mutation in a germ cell probably). This individual was better suited to its
environment than the individuals with trait 2, so it lived longer and had more offspring. Many
of its offspring also had trait 1 and they were well-suited to the environment and had more
offspring than average. The percentage of the population with trait 1 increased slightly with
each generation, until it reached the percentage shown in the graph.
Part C (1 point):
• Having no individuals with trait 2 could have negative consequences for the population
because genetic diversity is beneficial. If the environment changes in some way, it is possible
that trait 2 would be the better trait to have in that new environment.
OR
• It is important to have genetic diversity in a population, so they can meet various challenges
in a changing environment. If no individuals in the population have trait 2, then some genetic
diversity is lost and that is potentially harmful for the population.
OR
• Perhaps trait 2 would be the better trait in a slightly different environment. If the environment
changes and there are no individuals with trait 2, then it might be possible that the population
will all die off.
Background Information:
• Note for Part A and B: It is possible that trait 2 is the trait most favored by natural selection.
Since the circle graph can only show the occurrence of the two traits for one given time, we
do not know what the trend is. Perhaps trait 2 is fairly new to the population and is in the
process of increasing in frequency. A student should receive credit in Part A if they respond
with Trait 2 and in Part B they provide the given explanation.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 3 points
Parts A and B
Question 15
Page 1 of 2
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Part C
Question 15
Page 2 of 2
This response demonstrates a thorough understanding of how natural selection can impact allele frequencies of a population. In Part A,
which of the two traits is most likely favored by natural selection is correctly inferred (“trait 1”). In Part B, the response correctly explains
how natural selection could lead to the trait distribution shown in the graph (“organisms with trait 1 are able to survive easier and pass on
the trait to their offspring, while those with trait 2 are less likely to survive and reproduce”). In Part C, the response correctly explains why losing
a trait from a population could result in negative consequences for the population (“a change may occur in the environment making trait 1
undesirable”). The response is clear, complete and correct.
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 2 points
15. Use the circle graph below to answer the question.
Occurrence of Two Traits
in a Population
trait 1
trait 2
The graph shows the frequency of two traits, 1 and 2, in a population.
Part A: Use information from the circle graph to infer which trait is most likely
favored by natural selection.
Part B: Explain how natural selection could lead to the trait distribution shown in
the circle graph.
Go to the next page to finish question 15.
GO ON
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15. Continued. Please refer to the previous page for task explanation.
Part C: Scientists predict that over time 0% of the population will have trait2.
Explain why this change in trait distribution could result in negative
consequences for the population.
STOP
AFTER YOU HAVE CHECKED YOUR WORK, CLOSE YOUR ANSWER
BOOKLET AND TEST BOOKLET SO YOUR TEACHER WILL KNOW
YOU ARE FINISHED.
The response demonstrates a partial understanding of how natural selection can impact allele frequencies of a
population. In Part A, which of the two traits is most likely favored by natural selection is correctly inferred (“trait 1”). In
Part B, the response incorrectly explains how natural selection could lead to the trait distribution shown in the graph
(“natural selection is a random select of which trait should go into or out or moved in the gene pool. Natural selection is
randomly selected from the gene pool and trait 1 was most likely selected as the main trait”). In Part C, the response correctly
explains why losing a trait from a population could result in negative consequences for the population (“if there are
environmental changes the trait that is needed will no longer be there for them to survive”).
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 1 point
Parts A and B
Question 15
Page 1 of 2
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Part C
Question 15
Page 2 of 2
The response demonstrates a minimal understanding of how natural selection can impact allele frequencies of a population. In Part A,
which of the two traits is most likely favored by natural selection is correctly inferred (“trait 1”). In Part B, the response does not explain
how natural selection could lead to the trait distribution shown in the graph (“becaus it has chosen trait 1 more then trait 2”). In Part C, the
response incorrectly explains why losing a trait from a population could result in negative consequences for the population (“because trait
1’s percentage will keep on getting high as we go”).
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Response Score: 0 points
Parts A and B
Question 15
Page 1 of 2
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STUDENT RESPONSE
Part C
Question 15
Page 2 of 2
The response provides insufficient evidence to demonstrate understanding of how natural selection can impact allele frequencies of
a population. In Part A, which of the two traits is most likely favored by natural selection is incorrectly inferred (“Trait 2”). In Part B, the
response does not explain how natural selection could lead to the trait distribution shown in the graph (“The development of a new species
will be created”). In Part C, the response incorrectly explains why losing a trait from a population could result in negative consequences for
the population (“With the increase of offspring from the animals in the population, natural selection will result in negative consequences”).
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Biology Module 2—Summary Data
MULTIPLECHOICE
Sample
Number
Alignment Answer Key
Depth of
Knowledge
p-value
A
p-value
B
p-value
C
p-value
D
1 BIO.B.1.1.1 A 2 48% 13% 25% 14%
2 BIO.B.1.1.2 C 2 12% 17% 10% 61%
3 BIO.B.1.2.1 B 2 14% 61% 4% 21%
4 BIO.B.2.1.2 C 2 9% 13% 66% 12%
5 BIO.B.2.2.2 A 2 67% 13% 12% 8%
6 BIO.B.2.4.1 D 2 10% 7% 9% 74%
7 BIO.B.3.1.2 B 2 11% 59% 12% 18%
8 BIO.B.3.2.1 A 2 66% 17% 8% 9%
9 BIO.B.4.1.2 C 2 11% 16% 62% 11%
10 BIO.B.4.2.2 C 2 9% 12% 72% 7%
11 BIO.B.4.2.5 A 2 69% 8% 6% 17%
12 (P) BIO.B.3.3.1 C 2 11% 14% 68% 7%
13 (P) BIO.B.4.2.4 D 2 9% 10% 8% 73%
CONSTRUCTEDRESPONSE
Sample
Number
Alignment Points
Depth of
Knowledge
Mean Score
14 BIO.B.2.1.1 3 3 1.26
15 BIO.B.3.1.1 3 3 1.63
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Copyright © 2018 by the Pennsylvania Department of Education. The materials contained in this
publication may be duplicated by Pennsylvania educators for local classroom use. This permission
does not extend to the duplication of materials for commercial use.
Keystone Exams
Biology
Item and Scoring Sampler 2018